is roughly the same as the interval between the arrival of the Mayflower in America and the present day. Therefore, since the early Christians had no defined New Testament for almost four hundred years, how did they practice sola Scriptura?
The time interval between the Resurrection and the establishment of the New Testament canon in AD 382?
I just really really wish that the Emperor Constantine would stop getting brought up concerning the making of the Bible. He had nothing to do with it.
That Dan Brown crap was less scientific than voodoo dolls.
Reply:They couldn't, for there was no canonnized scripture to rely on.
In 325AD, Emperor Constantine attempted to standardize the practics of christianity, by assembling the first council of nicaea. At this council, decisions were made as to the godhood of Jesus, and the trinity.
Reply:Word of mouth. Which, to my mind, leave a whole lot open to interpretation and unreliable reporting. Things will get lost or twisted over the years. Just saying...
Reply:They did have books to go from, but they were widely different depending on the particular region and who produced them. The NT was a combination of books written through out that time and passed back and forth. The whole reason of the council was to decide which of those books should go in the formal cannon to define and unify Christianity.
Reply:they did still use scripture, and very badly translated bits I would venture to add. That's why there was a concern at the time that many valuable documents were being terribly translated into Greek and Latin while the originals were physically degrading. Gospels such as the protoevangelium of St James and the apocryphal gospel of St Bartholomew are not included in today's bible for those very reasons.
But they were degraded because those gospels were used SO much by early Christians. And if you read them you understand where many Catholic "traditions" come from.
*fyi*
may
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